Was it necessary that the Lord Jesus had to give up the Ghost before the veil could be rent? Matthew 27.51 and Mark 15.38 seem to imply after, but Luke 23.45 gives it as being before.
The rending of the veil was a clear sign that the Jewish dispensation and system had been finished with. It signified that there was now a breaking down of all separation between God and men, that the free right of way into the holiest was open to all believers. In connection with Hebrews 10.19-20 it has been said, "The true veil as that which shrouded the divine glory from the eyes of men, was His flesh, and through that He passed, the Forerunner of all who trust Him, into the sanctuary not made with hands, eternal in the heavens".
In Luke's Gospel the rending of the veil (v.45) is narrated before the Lord's dismissing His spirit, but it does not say that the event of v.45 preceded that which is recorded in v.46. Luke, in his Gospel, is more moral in order than chronological. We do not claim that any of the four Gospels give events in a strict chronological sequence, but rather there is a grouping of events to bring out the particular purpose of each Gospel.
The rending of the veil was truly a miracle. God was in it, for it was rent from top to bottom. Therefore, a divine hand had accomplished this great incident. The veil was made of very heavy material and it was virtually an impossibility to tear it by human hand. The veil had not become old and moth-eaten and eventually chose this moment to tear into two equal parts. It is interesting to see that in Israel's history the nation is associated with three divided things: the dividing of the Red Sea (Exodus 14), the dividing of the veil, and the dividing of the Mount of Olives (Zechariah 14). These major events signify for Israel the end of bondage, the end of systems, and the end of the tribulation.
John J Stubbs
In Matthew 3, we read of the baptism of John "unto repentance" (v.11). Unto what was the baptism of the Lord (Jn 3.22) and His disciples (Jn 4.2) that was carried out at the same time?
The Apostle Paul explains the mission and message of John the Baptist to those disciples whom he found at Ephesus who were ignorant of what had transpired on the day of Pentecost and the special bestowing of the Holy Spirit, and who had been baptised "unto John's baptism". Paul says to them, "John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus" (Acts 19.4).
The first recorded words of John as he preached "in the wilderness of Judæa" (Mt 3.1) are, "Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand" (Mt 3.2). We are told that there "went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judæa, and all the region round about Jordan, And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins" (Mt 3.5-6). Thus the first element in John's preaching was a call to repentance; the second element was the nearness of the presentation of the promised Messiah to the nation of Israel, "the kingdom of heaven is at hand".
It should be emphasised that John's baptism "unto repentance" was with a view to the forgiveness of sins. Those baptised acknowledged they were sinners, "confessing their sins". It was preparatory to the advent of Messiah in anticipation of the propitiatory work that He would accomplish at the cross; it is only through the blood of Christ that an individual can receive the forgiveness of his sins.
As to the baptism performed by the Lord Jesus and His disciples, very little is said. We are told that, "After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judæa; and there he tarried with them, and baptised" (Jn 3.22). It is clear that this took place at the same time as John was baptising, for the passage continues, "John also was baptising in Ænon near to Salim" (Jn 3.23). We further read, "Jesus made and baptised more disciples than John, (Though Jesus himself baptised not, but his disciples (Jn 4.1-2). From this we learn that what is done by the servants of Christ by His authority is as though it had been done by Christ Himself. Presumably this baptism by the Lord Jesus and His disciples involved adherence to Him as the Messiah.
Following the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, He did, of course, institute a new thing (Mt 28.19) - we refer to it as believer's baptism – which replaced John's baptism.
David E West
