In dealing with 2 Corinthians 2.8 it has been pointed out that "There is not a hint that he was to be allowed to break bread, but was to be avoided as much as possible by the saints as one tolerated but not appreciated". In view of the fact that Paul writes in vv.7-8, "…forgive him…comfort him…confirm your love toward him", and the man had repented, how can this be?
The questioner does not mention the source of the quotation. It may have been interesting and helpful to have had this information, but in the absence of this we can only make some general remarks on the passage touching the man in 2 Corinthians 2.6-8. The man referred to in 1 Corinthians 5 has sinned morally and required discipline in its extreme form of excommunication. We clearly have the language of excommunication there in v.5: "To deliver such an one unto Satan…". It appears that the act of discipline had not been carried out in the Corinthian assembly. So Paul writes with apostolic authority appealing to them to exercise this needful discipline, and it seems clear from 2 Corinthians 2 that they had carried this out. Then, by the time Paul wrote this second letter the man had been repentant and received again into the assembly.
It must ever be remembered that discipline in the assembly has always in view the restoration of the person who has sinned. It is the whole assembly that is involved in the act as is clear in the words of v.6: "inflicted of "the many". It is the assembly that receives and it is the assembly that puts away. Sadly, it sometimes happens that believers can have a wrong attitude toward the restored man by not showing the spirit of Christ to him. It seems the Corinthians were slow in this. If a believer has been restored and received back into an assembly upon genuine repentance, then three features should be manifested toward such a person, namely, as mentioned above, forgiveness, comfort, and love (vv.7-8). This is very different from avoiding and tolerating the man. Once there has been repentance and a real desire to be in the assembly then the way is clear to receive this man to the fellowship. An essential part of that fellowship is the privilege of breaking bread.
-John J Stubbs
Psalm 2.7 reads, "I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son: this day have I begotten thee". Given that the Son is eternal, what is the "day" referred to, and how was the Lord "begotten"?
When Jehovah said these words to His Son is not definitely stated, and what the phrase "this day" implies is not made clear here. No explanation will meet the requirements of the context and the contexts in the New Testament (Acts 13.33; Heb 1.5, 5.5) where Psalm 2.7 is cited except one which accepts that the decree and its declaration were made in eternity, but were only made manifest in time.
Hebrews 1.5 reads: "For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?" - the latter quotation being cited from 2 Samuel 7.14. The essential meaning can be made clear by comparing these two statements; they emphasise a unique relationship and do not refer to the inception of that relationship.
As to the quotation in Acts 13.33, "God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus [again]; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee" - this quotation must be taken in conjunction with v.23 of the same chapter, "God...raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus". The reference is not to His birth, nor indeed to His resurrection, but His being raised to public service and ministry among the people. Verse 34 of the chapter seems to make it very clear that the reference here is not to His resurrection: "And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead (introducing the contrast), now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David".
If in Acts 13.33 Christ is raised up as a Saviour, in Hebrews 1.5 He is raised up as a Prophet, for although "God...spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets", He "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son (or "in Son")" (Heb 1.1-2). According to Hebrews 5.5, He is "raised up" as High Priest, "So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee"; whilst in Psalm 2.6-7 He is raised up as King: "Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion".
-David E West
