Can you please explain from the promise of Genesis 3.15 to what the "bruising of the head" and the "bruising of the heel" refer? Has this been fulfilled in Christ?
This is a very interesting verse containing the first promise in the Bible. Genesis 3.15 is really the germ of all Bible prophecy. Sir Robert Anderson wrote, "This Eden promise is like the little rivulet far up on the mountain side to which men point as the beginning of a mighty river". It contains in it more than a hint of at least three matters: the division of humanity - the two seeds, the doom of Satan "it shall bruise thy head", and the death of Christ "thou shalt bruise his heel". The conflict here between the devils seed and the womans seed gives the very reason for prophecy. It is a brief but far reaching announcement of the long conflict between good and evil. The earth will continue to be the scene of this struggle until at last, after the Millennium, evil will have its death blow in the final rebellion of Revelation 20.7-10.
It is fascinating to see that Genesis 3.15 apparently speaks of one event, the accomplishment of which is in two stages, the first being separated from the second by an undisclosed lengthy period of time. Thus we know the bruising of the head will occur long after the, now past, bruising of the heel the suffering of Christ at Calvary. Whether a prophecy is of this sort can only be discovered when part of its terms have passed into history and there is a residual balance not yet fulfilled. This rule applies to such passages as, for example, Isaiah 61.1,2 and John 5.28,29.
Without pressing things too far, the idea of the bruising of the heel suggests a picture of damage which is neither fatal nor final. The heel is the inferior part which may be wounded but not destroyed. Satan did not destroy Christ at Calvary. As to the bruising of the head, the head is the superior part and I judge it indicates the complete overthrow of Satan at the end "The God of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet shortly" (Rom 16.20).
John J Stubbs
The reference to "the Lords supper" (1 Cor 11.20) clearly has in view the Lord Jesus. When "the Lords table" (1 Cor 10.21) is mentioned, does this refer to the "LORD" in the Old Testament sense of "Jehovah" and not to the Lord Jesus particularly, since the term "Lords table" is found in the Old Testament?
Verses 17-22 of 1 Corinthians 11 are concerned with things as they were at Corinth, whilst vv.23-26 set out things as instituted by the Lord Jesus. Thus the subject of vv.20-22 is the Corinthians own supper. It appears that at Corinth there was a social or fellowship meal in connection with the Lords supper. However, this love feast had taken over, so that the supper had degenerated into a common meal. The Corinthians were not carrying out the thing for which they professed they had come together, so Paul writes, "this is not to eat the Lords supper" (1 Cor 11.20). They would indeed partake of a supper, but it was not the Lords. Nevertheless, as the questioner states, "the Lords supper" refers to that of the Lord Jesus, the supper which He instituted.
"The table of the LORD" is an expression found in the Old Testament; it is not therefore limited to Christianity, whereas "the Lords supper" is. Thus in Malachi, the altar of burnt offering is spoken of as "The table of the LORD" (1.7,12). David, for example, knew what it was to sit at the Lords table, appreciating the provision that the Lord had made for him at that time, "Thou preparest a table before me in the presence of mine enemies" (Ps 23.5), but he did not have the privilege of partaking of the Lords supper.
In 1 Corinthians 10, Paul contrasts "the Lords table" with "the table of demons". The Lords table here is expressive of fellowship. Indeed the two words for fellowship, viz. "communion" and "partakers", occur five times in vv.16-21. "The Lords table" as presented by Paul would point to all the good into which we have entered as a result of the Person and work of the Lord Jesus. As "the table of demons" would represent the whole system of idolatry, so "the Lords table" would set forth all the blessings of Christianity which we now enjoy.
The present writer believes that the reference to "the Lords table" has in view the Lord Jesus particularly. However, in such Scriptures as "the earth is the Lords, and the fulness thereof" (1 Cor 10.26,28), quoted from Psalm 24.1, the reference is to Jehovah.
David E West